| Biology 449 - Animal Physiology | Spring, 2001 |
Final Exam
Multiple
choice: As always, choose the best
answer for each multiple-choice question.
Answer on your scantron form.
Each question (except 1) is worth 3 points.
1. Fill in your scantron form as follows: (2 point)
· Write and bubble in your social security number in the lower left.
· If you wish to retrieve your exam score through the course web site, write and bubble in a secret code (i.e. a password) in the “Special Codes” section. Be sure you remember it!
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· Sign your form in the upper right.
a. Really, I swear, I did it all.
b. – e. I don’t think I need those two points (but I may change my mind if I miss the next grade up by 0.4%).
2. Which of the following fluid spaces is not considered to be part of Bernard’s “internal environment”?
a. Intracellular fluid
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Blood plasma or serum
d. Two of the above are not part of the internal environment.
e. None of the above are part of the internal environment.
3. During a fever, body temperature rises and then is maintained at a temperature several degrees above normal. Which component of the negative feedback loop controlling temperature must have changed for this to occur?
a. The temperature sensor
b. The efferent pathway(s)
c. The integrating center
d. The temperature setpoint
e. The afferent pathway(s)
4. According to the Fick equation, which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion from one area to another?
a. An increase in the temperature of the system
b. An increase in the thickness of barrier separating the two areas
c. An increase in the difference in concentration between the two areas
d. A decrease in the diffusion coefficient
e. A decrease in the area over which diffusion can take place.
5. The osmolarity value of a solution by itself indicates
a. the concentration of the solute in the solvent
b. the concentration of particles dissolved in the solvent
c. the number of positive ions in the solution
d. the number of negative ions in the solution
e. whether water will move in or out of the solution by osmosis
6. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the
a. central nervous system
b. afferent nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. autonomic nervous system
e. parasympathetic nervous system
7. The Nertz equation is less useful than the Goldman equation for calculating membrane potentials under real physiological conditions because
a. the Nertz equation does not deal with membrane potentials.
b. the Nertz equation does not account for differences in ion concentration.
c. the Nertz equation does not account for the presence of more than one ion.
d. the Nertz equation is much more complicated to calculate than the Goldman equation.
e. the Nertz equation only applies to membrane potentials in the giant squid.
8. Which of the following help to repolarize the neuron membrane during an action potential?
a. The opening of sodium channels
b. The closing of sodium channels
c. The opening of potassium channels
d. The closing of potassium channels
e. More than one of the above
9. Which of the following would be specifically associated with the presence of nodes of Ranvier on an axon?
a. Saltatory conduction
b. Myelin
c. An absolute refractory period
d. Two of the above
e. All of the above
10. Which of the following is not typical of fast chemical synaptic transmission?
a. Channel proteins opened directly by the neurotransmitter
b. G-protein complexes
c. Signal transmission times of about 1 ms
d. Small, quick diffusing neurotransmitters
e. Neurotransmitter release directly into the synaptic cleft.
11. Which of the following would likely be the effect of the neurotransmitter released by an inhibitory neuron?
a. Increased flow of sodium ions into the neuron
b. Decreased flow of potassium ions out of the neuron
c. Increased flow of calcium ions into the neuron
d. Increased flow of chloride ions into the neuron
e. All of these effects are excitatory
12. Receptors for ACh are known as
a. GABA receptors.
b. adrenergic receptors.
c. alpha receptors.
d. beta receptors.
e. cholinergic receptors.
13. Which of the following is most useful in amplifying small stimuli in sensory neurons?
a. Channel proteins
b. G-protein complexes
c. Biogenic amines
d. Epinepherine
e. Transducin
14. A phasic receptor has delivers action potentials at a frequency proportional to
a. the stimulus intensity.
b. the stimulus delay.
c. the rate of change of stimulus intensity.
d. the polarity of the stimulus.
e. the type of stimulus.
15. A sensory cell associated with the gustatory system would most likely be a
a. mechanoreceptor
b. thermoreceptor
c. photoreceptor
d. chemoreceptor
e. electroreceptor
16. The auditory system involves
a. mechanical amplification.
b. pressure waves.
c. membrane flexion.
d. Two of the above
e. All of the above
17. An eye containing only rod-type cells would most likely be associated with
a. a nectar-gathering bird.
b. a nocturnal predator.
c. a human.
d. None of these
e. All of these
18. Which of the following does not travel through the blood stream to carry its “message”?
a. A peptide hormone
b. A steroid hormone
c. An amine
d. A paracrine agent
e. Two of the above
19. Which of the following hormones inhibits the release of prolactin?
a. Inhibin
b. Somatostatin
c. Dopamine
d. Estrogen
e. None of the above
20. The hormone most directly associated with the stress response is
a. cortisol.
b. thyroxine (T4).
c. triiodothyronine (T3).
d. growth hormone.
e. insulin-like growth factor I.
21. The calcium ions that enter the myofibril during excitation-contraction coupling
a. move out of the T-tubules down their concentration gradient.
b. are actively transported out of the T-tubules.
c. move out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum down their concentration gradient.
d. are actively transported out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
e. are released from calcium carbonate stores in the myofiber.
22. Which of the following is associated with the thin filaments of skeletal muscles?
a. Myosin
b. Rhodopsin
c. Myoglobin
d. Troponin
e. Keratin
23. Which of the following would be characteristic of a slow oxidative muscle fiber?
a. Rapid fatigue
b. Fast twitches
c. High maximum shortening velocity
d. Little or no myoglobin
e. High mitochondrial content.
24. The bundle of His
a. initiates the heartbeat.
b. transmits electrical excitations through the myocardium.
c. acts to provide a delay between the atrial and ventricular contractions.
d. controls isovolemic contraction.
e. repolarizes the myocardium.
25. Starling’s “Law of the Heart” states that
a. increasing the heartbeat frequency increases the stroke volume.
b. increasing the stroke volume increases the heartbeat frequency.
c. increased blood return to the heart increases the stroke volume.
d. increased blood return to the heart increases the heartbeat frequency.
e. increasing heart rate increases blood pressure.
26. Which type of blood vessel has the greatest total cross-sectional area?
a. Arteries
b. Arterioles
c. Capillaries
d. Venules
e. Veins
27. Which of the following would be expected to increase the rate of fluid loss from the capillaries during the formation of lymph?
a. Increasing vasoconstriction upstream of the capillary, thus reducing blood flow
b. Increasing the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid around the capillary
c. Increasing the osmolarity of the blood
d. Increasing the osmolarity of the interstitial fluid around the capillary
e. None of the above would increase the rate of fluid loss from the capillaries.
28. Normal, resting exhalation relies on activation of
a. the diaphragm.
b. the external intercostals.
c. the internal intercostals.
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above
29. The difference between minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation rate is due to
a. the effects of anatomical dead space.
b. the difference between a forced pressure and suction pump.
c. the elasticity of the lungs.
d. the curvature of the diaphragm.
e. the space taken up by intrapleural fluid.
30. The approximate composition of blood returning to the lungs at rest is
a. PO2 = 0 torr, PCO2 = 100 torr
b. PO2 = 40 torr, PCO2 = 45 torr
c. PO2 = 75 torr, PCO2 = 25 torr
d. PO2 = 104 torr, PCO2 = 40 torr
e. PO2 = 160 torr, PCO2 = 0 torr
31. Use the graph below to answer the following question.
While working under hypoxic (low oxygen) conditions, a test subject has an arterial PO2 of 70 torr and a venous PO2 of 20 torr. What percent of the maximum oxygen that can be carried by the hemoglobin is delivered to the subject’s tissues?
a. 20%
b. 35%
c. 50%
d. 85%
e. It is impossible to tell from the information provided.
32. The respiratory control center is located in the
a. anterior pituitary.
b. posterior pituitary.
c. hypothalamus.
d. medulla oblongata.
e. vagus nerve.
33. Which of the following statements is true, given normal resting levels of blood gases as starting conditions?
a. Ventilation is more sensitive to small changes (~ 4 torr) in PO2 than to small changes in PCO2.
b. Ventilation is more sensitive to small changes in PCO2 than to small changes in PO2.
c. Ventilation is equally sensitive to small changes in PCO2 and PO2.
d. Ventilation does not respond to small changes in PCO2 and PO2.
e. Who knows?
34. The first part of the digestive tract in which absorption of nutrients takes place is the
a. mouth
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. small intestine
e. large intestine
35. Which of the following is/are not released by the pancreas?
a. Proteases
b. Lipases
c. Amylase
d. Bile salts
e. Bicarbonate
36. The transport of glucose across epithelial layers in the gut involves
a. primary active transport via a uniporter
b. primary active transport via a symporter
c. primary active transport via an antiporter
d. secondary active transport via a symporter
e. secondary active transport via an antiporter
37. One effect of glucagon is
a. increased absorption of glucose in the gut.
b. increased glucose release by the liver.
c. increased fat synthesis by adipose tissue.
d. increased protein synthesis by muscle cells.
e. increased use of fats as fuel by the central nervous system.
38. The renal system is not involved in
a. osmoregulation.
b. excretion.
c. acid-base regulation.
d. blood pressure regulation.
e. lymph formation.
39. In what portion of the nephron does glucose get reabsorbed?
a. Proximal tubule
b. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
c. Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
d. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle & beginning distal tubule
e. End distal tubule & collecting duct
40. The most important function of the high osmotic concentration of the renal medulla is that
a. it serves as a storage location for a number of solutes.
b. it helps prevent kidney stones.
c. it helps break down nitrogenous wastes.
d. it allows the loop of Henle to function.
e. it allows the formation of a high concentration urine.
41. When levels of ADH are low, which of the following will be the direct result?
a. Decreased recovery of sodium from the urine
b. Increased recovery of sodium from the urine
c. Decreased recovery of water from the urine
d. Increased recovery of water from the urine
e. None of the above
42. For a typical human, maximal metabolic rate is about how many times basal metabolic rate?
a. 1´
b. 3-5´
c. 10-20´
d. 50-100´
e. 300-500´
43. The gene responsible for initiating male development in a fetus is the
a. XY gene.
b. MIF gene.
c. STD gene.
d. SRY gene.
e. Sex determination is strictly environmental.
44. In the developing fetus, which of the following effects does testosterone have?
a. Causes development of the Wolffian ducts
b. Causes regression of the Wolffian ducts
c. Causes development of the Müllerian ducts
d. Causes regression of the Müllerian ducts
e. Two of the above
45. The first sign of the onset of puberty would be
a. increased levels of gonadotropin releasing hormone.
b. maturation of the genitalia.
c. development of pubic hair.
d. increased growth rate.
e. cessation of growth.
46. Spermatogenesis is most directly controlled by
a. Leydig cells.
b. Sertoli cells.
c. inhibin.
d. luteinizing hormone.
e. spermatids.
47. Which of the following is not part of the reproductive tract in the human male?
a. Epididymus
b. Vas deferens
c. Ureter
d. Ejaculatory duct
e. Urethra
48. The erect state of the penis in men is supported by
a. muscular force.
b. air-filled tubes.
c. the penile bone.
d. cellulose
e. blood pressure.
49. The follicles of the ovary consist (at some point) of
a. granulosa cells.
b. thecal cells.
c. an oocyte.
d. Two of the above
e. All of the above
50. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle involves growth of the
a. ovary.
b. corpus luteum.
c. oviducts.
d. endometrium.
e. vagina.
51. In humans, the period of time each month during which sexual intercourse can lead to fertilization is about
a. thirty minutes.
b. two hours.
c. twelve hours.
d. three days.
e. one week.
52. Which of the following statements is true?
a. During pregnancy, the fetal tissue first produces estrogen and progesterone, then stimulates the mother to release these hormones herself.
b. During pregnancy, the fetal tissue first stimulates the mother to release estrogen and progesterone, then produces these hormones itself.
c. Throughout pregnancy, the fetus produces the estrogen and progesterone found in the mother’s body.
d. Throughout pregnancy, the fetus stimulates the mother to release estrogen and progesterone.
e. The fetus does not directly influence the estrogen and progesterone levels in the mother.
53. The most important hormone in parturition is
a. follicle-stimulating hormone.
b. luteinizing hormone.
c. prolactin.
d. oxytocin.
e. inhibin.
54. Lactation generally begins only after the birth of a child because
a. prolactin is not released before parturition.
b. milk production is stimulated by the stretching of the cervix during parturition.
c. milk production is inhibited by a stretched uterus during pregnancy.
d. milk production is inhibited by high levels of progesterone and estrogen.
e. Two of the above
Short answer: Write a concise answer to each of the
following questions. Your answers
should fit in the spaces provided. Each
question is worth three points unless otherwise noted.
55. Briefly describe three different means by which a substance may move across or through a membrane when movement is with the substance’s concentration gradient. (These mechanisms were discussed at the same time as mechanisms for moving up a gradient; i.e. active transport.)
56. What is the dynamic range of a sensory system? Describe one mechanism that may help expand this range.
57. List three important differences in nerves and hormones, with regard to their role in carrying messages or signals to various effectors.
58. Give an example of a two-pigment system for carrying oxygen. Indicate which pigment has the higher affinity for oxygen.
59. Describe the steps involved in excitation-contraction coupling. You can do this in list form. You do not need to describe the details of myosin-actin cross-bridge cycling. (6 points)
60. List three functions of the liver.
61. If blood pressure drops, a number of physiological responses may occur to help correct this problem.
a. Name one mechanism used to help increase blood pressure over the short-term
b. Name two mechanisms used to help increase blood pressure over the long-term
62. Answer the following questions using the graph below. (6 points)
The graph represents a single female menstrual cycle.
a. The graph needs to show the relative levels of luteinizing hormone, estrogen and progesterone.
· Label the existing line as one of these three hormones.
· Add the lines for the remaining two hormones to the graph, and label each line. (Note: it is only the change of each hormone through time that is important, not the absolute levels of the hormones to one another.)
b. For each of the following events, place the corresponding number at the appropriate time on the graph.
The egg is released from the ovary
‚ Positive feedback loop for estrogen release begins
ƒ Corpus luteum grows and develops
„ Menstrual phase of uterine cycle
63. Give two effects of estrogen and one of progesterone during pregnancy
Estrogen (2 effects):
Progesterone (1 effect)
64. Describe the changes in the urine as it moves down and then up the loop of Henle. What is entering or leaving the urine, what are the processes involved, and how does urine concentration change? You can include a diagram, but be sure it is explained with text as well.
Bonus question – No penalty for skipping this one
65. After the death of a person (or other animal), the condition known as rigor mortis is typically observed after a few hours. This condition is a stiffness of all the muscles in the corpse that does not disappear until the tissues begin to decay. Given the clue that rigor mortis occurs when the muscle cells run out of ATP, coupled with your knowledge of muscle physiology, how might you explain this phenomenon?